Americans, this is what your government is capable of:

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Is there a difference between watching and reading?

(Update: Two of my favorite conservative thinkers, Mike Tams and Lawrence Auster, have reacted positively to Romney's speech. This gives me some pause as to my initial thoughts.)

Much has been written about Romney's faith speech across the blogosphere. Dr. Dobson of CitizenLink commends Romney for speaking so highly of the role of religion in our society. I hear that Pat Buchanan has some kind things to say about the speech as well, though I've not read Buchanan's take as yet.

I don't have time to go into all the details of where Romney and I part ways on religion in America, but I will excerpt one passage from his speech here:

Romney said:

Americans were unable to accommodate their commitment to their own faith with an appreciation for the convictions of others to different faiths. In this, they were very much like those of the European nations they had left.

Now, that just really chaps my hide! If he hadn't already lost me with his admiration for Islam, this statement would have sealed the deal with me. I imagine that Romney thinks the same thing (it seems to be the implication here) about people like me who are "unable to accomodate their commitment to their own faith with an appreciation for the convictions of others to different faiths," namely Muslims.

As I wrote to Auster, it's one thing to say you admire Muslims' commitment to frequent prayer. It's something altogether different to preface it with the statement Romney chose. If you don't know how he prefaced the above statement, then go read the transcript of his speech.

Which brings me to the point of the post:

Are we sometimes enamored by a candidate's presence, his personality, his ability to communicate effectively, his clean appearance and so forth, to the point that we're not hearing the implications of his words? I didn't have a chance to watch Romney's speech except for short clips after I'd read the speech and had found it wanting in several respects. But I thought it was an interesting question--seeing vs. reading--and I'd be interested in your take.

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Where Me and Jefferson get a little crossways

I appreciate the contribution of Thomas Jefferson to the founding of this country probably as much as anyone does. But there's one point of disagreement between he and I that I just can't get over.

In his autobiography, Mr. Jefferson discusses the Virginia bill on Religious freedom which he authored, and particularly what the Virginia legislators at the time had intended in passing the bill in its final form.

Jefferson writes:

The bill for establishing religious freedom, the principles of which had, to a certain degree, been enacted before, I had drawn in all the latitude of reason & right. It still met with opposition; but, with some mutilations in the preamble, it was finally passed; and a singular proposition proved that its protection of opinion was meant to be universal. Where the preamble declares that coercion is a departure from the plan of the holy author of our religion, an amendment was proposed, by inserting the word "Jesus Christ," so that it should read "a departure from the plan of Jesus Christ, the holy author of our religion." The insertion was rejected by a great majority,...

in proof that they meant to comprehend, within the mantle of its protection, the Jew and the Gentile, the Christian and Mahometan, the Hindoo, and infidel of every denomination. (italics added)

Really? The rejection of this singular proposition by a great majority -- inserting the name Jesus Christ in the midst of Jefferson's phrase -- is proof that the Virginia assembly meant to comprehend every religion under the sun, even those religions which are strikingly incompatible with a Western worldview, within the mantle of its protection?

One would think that if Jefferson's assertion is correct, there would be a large body of compelling evidence to support and fortify his claim to which he would point us, but he makes no reference to any such evidence. Why? Also, what plan and what author and what religion is Jefferson referring to when he says "a departure from the plan of the holy author of our religion?" The only thing that's clear to me in this phrase is the term "our" meaning "their" meaning the Virginia assembly that passed the bill as the voice of the freemen of that State. He is referring to some specific plan of some specific author of some specific religion, is he not? That's the impression I get.

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